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PRMIA Exam 8010 Topic 1 Question 46 Discussion

Actual exam question for PRMIA's 8010 exam
Question #: 46
Topic #: 1
[All 8010 Questions]

According to the implied capital model, operational risk capital is estimated as:

Show Suggested Answer Hide Answer
Suggested Answer: C

The current Basel rules for the basic VaR based charge for market risk capital set market risk capital requirements as the maximum of the following two amounts:

1. 99%/10-day VaR,

2. Regulatory Multiplier x Average 99%/10-day VaR of the past 60 days

The 'regulatory multiplier' is a number between 3 and 4 (inclusive) calculated based on the number of 1% VaR exceedances in the previous 250 days, as determined by backtesting.

- If the number of exceedances is <= 4, then the regulatory multiplier is 3.

- If the number of exceedances is between 5 and 9, then the multiplier = 3 + 0.2*(N-4), where N is the number of exceedances.

- If the number of exceedances is >=10, then the multiplier is 4.

So you can see that in most normal situations the risk capital requirement will be dictated by the multiplier and the prior 60-day average VaR, because the product of these two will almost often be greater than the current 99% VaR.

The correct answer therefore is = max(200mm, 3*250mm) = $750mm.

Interestingly, also note that a 99% VaR should statistically be exceeded 1%*250 days = 2.5 times, which means if the bank's VaR model is performing as it should, it will still need to use a reg multiplier of 3.


Contribute your Thoughts:

Rashad
2 months ago
I'd choose option D just to see the look on the examiner's face. Who needs the capital asset pricing model when you can just roll the dice?
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Elina
6 days ago
I agree, option D does seem like a risky choice.
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Harley
9 days ago
I would go with option C, it seems like the most accurate method.
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Layla
14 days ago
I think option A is the most reasonable choice.
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Alison
2 months ago
C is the way to go! The other options just don't make sense in the context of the implied capital model.
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Germaine
10 days ago
Yeah, I see what you mean. Option C does align better with the implied capital model.
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Catarina
15 days ago
I think option A could also be a possibility, but C does make more sense.
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Hector
1 months ago
I agree, option C seems to be the most logical choice.
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Kattie
2 months ago
Hmm, this is a tricky one. I'm stuck between B and C. I guess I'll go with C since it specifically mentions the firm's earnings.
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France
2 days ago
User 4: C it is then, let's see if we got it right.
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Quiana
16 days ago
User 3: I'm not sure, but I'll go with C too since it makes sense.
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Trinidad
25 days ago
User 2: I agree, C seems like the right choice based on that.
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Oliva
2 months ago
User 1: I think the answer is C because it mentions the firm's earnings.
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Cassandra
2 months ago
I'm not sure, but I think the answer might be C) Capital implied from known risk premiums and the firm's earnings.
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Francisca
2 months ago
I agree with Ashley, because it makes sense to estimate operational risk capital based on what similar firms are holding.
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Ashley
2 months ago
I think the answer is A) Operational risk capital held by similar firms, appropriately scaled.
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Leonor
2 months ago
I agree with Raymon. Option C is the correct answer here. The other options don't really align with the description of the implied capital model.
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Fairy
1 months ago
Yeah, it seems like the best fit for the implied capital model.
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Allene
2 months ago
I think option C makes the most sense too.
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Raymon
2 months ago
Option C seems like the most logical answer to me. The implied capital model estimates operational risk capital based on the firm's earnings and known risk premiums.
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