PRMIA Exam 8006 Topic 1 Question 58 Discussion

Actual exam question for PRMIA's 8006 exam

Question #: 58
Topic #: 1

A borrower pays a floating rate on a loan and wishes to convert it to a position where a fixed rate is paid. Which of the following can be used to accomplish this objective?

1. A short position in a fixed rate bond and a long position in an FRN

II. An long position in an interest rate collar and long an FRN

III. A short position in a fixed rate bond and a short position in an FRN

IV. An interest rate swap where the investor pays the fixed rate

ANone of the above

BI and IV

CI, II and IV

DII and III
A short position in a fixed rate bond and a long position in an FRN has the effect of paying fixed and receiving floating. The floating received offsets the floating payment on the borrowing, leaving the borrower with just a fixed rate outflow. Therefore the combination identified in statement I can be used to achieve the objective of paying fixed.
A collar is equivalent to a long position in an interest rate cap combined with a short position in an interest rate floor. This has the effect of setting a range within which the investor's borrowing rate will vary. In the case where the cap and floor rates are the same, the combination of a collar and a long FRN effectively produces an outcome where the holder of such positions pays a fixed rate. Therefore, an interest rate collar can be used to convert the fixed payment to a floating rate payment. [Example: Assume current interest rate is 3%, and therefore the borrower has a liability of 3% on the FRN. Assume that the borrower now buys a collar at the strike rate of 4%. Now the borrower receives 0% (=Max(3 % - 4%, 0)) on the cap part of the collar, and pays 1% on the floor part of the collar (=Max(4% - 3%, 0)). The net borrowing cost therefore is 3% paid on the FRN plus 1% paid on the collar, equal to 4%. Now if interest rates rise to say 6%, the borrower pays 6% on the FRN, and receives 2% from the collar (=Max(6% - 4%, 0) - Max(4% - 6%, 0)), creating a net cost of 6% - 2% = 4%.
A collar is often issued with an FRN to convert floating flows to fixed. Therefore combination II is an acceptable choice.
A short position in a fixed rate bond and a short position in an FRN produces a cash flow that does not produce a net fixed cash outflow when combined with the borrowing. Therefore statement III is not a valid combination.
An interest rate swap where the investor pays fixed and receives floating, when combined with a floating payment on an FRN leaves a net fixed payment, Therefore statement IV is a valid way to achieve the borrower's objective.

Show Suggested Answer

Suggested Answer: C

by Raul at Sep 22, 2022, 07:35 PM

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