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NABP Exam NAPLEX Topic 3 Question 89 Discussion

Actual exam question for NABP's NAPLEX exam
Question #: 89
Topic #: 3
[All NAPLEX Questions]

Your patient is a 43-year-old male who is experiencing post-operative voiding difficulty after an elective inguinal hernia repair. His post void residual volume was 280 cc.

Which of the following medications is the most appropriate choice of therapy for this patient?

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Suggested Answer: E

Cefazolin or an antistaphylococcal penicillin (oxacillin or nafcillin) is recommended for this patient because the C&S results indicate MSSA. Since the patient develops a rash to penicillins, it would be acceptable to use cefazolin in this case.


https://academic.oup.com/cid/article/59/2/e10/2895845/Practice-Guidelines-for-the-Diagnosis-and

Contribute your Thoughts:

Rory
5 days ago
Why do you think Oxybutynin is a better choice?
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Hildegarde
5 days ago
I disagree, I believe Oxybutynin would be a better option for him.
upvoted 0 times
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Rory
9 days ago
I think the most appropriate choice of therapy for this patient is Bethanechol.
upvoted 0 times
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