Management requested that the chief audit executive (CAE) include an audit of the organization's health and safety program in next year's annual audit plan. However, the internal audit activity has no expertise in this are
a. Which of the following would be the most appropriate actions for the CAE?
Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:
Reference to IIA Standards:
Standard 1210 - Proficiency: The internal audit activity must possess or obtain the knowledge, skills, and competencies needed to perform its responsibilities effectively.
If internal expertise is lacking, external resources or subject matter experts should be engaged.
Reasoning:
Option A is correct because collaborating with an internal expert ensures that the audit is performed competently while addressing the health and safety risks comprehensively.
Option B (amending the scope) avoids addressing critical risks, which may undermine the value of the audit.
Option C (relying on management's risk assessment) is inappropriate, as the internal audit function must independently evaluate the area.
Mitigating Lack of Expertise:
Leveraging subject matter experts ensures compliance with professional standards and the integrity of the audit process.
Which of the following internal auditor attributes benefits the most from continuous professional development?
Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:
Competency: Continuous professional development ensures auditors maintain and enhance their knowledge, skills, and expertise, directly supporting their ability to perform engagements effectively.
Other Options:
Option A: Integrity is a foundational ethical principle but is not developed through training or professional development.
Option B: Objectivity is influenced by ethical behavior and independence, not primarily by training.
Thus, the correct answer is C. Competency.
Which of the following scenarios would be the strongest indicator of fraud in an accounts payable process?
Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:
Address Matches an Employee's Residence: This is a strong indicator of fraud, as it suggests the possibility of a fictitious vendor created to divert funds to the employee.
Other Options:
Option A: Missing documentation may indicate poor record-keeping but is not a strong indicator of fraud on its own.
Option B: Delayed invoices might indicate inefficiencies, not fraud.
Thus, the correct answer is C. The address on one of the vendor invoices matches an employee's residential address.
Management has decided that transactions less than $50 no longer require authorization. Which of the following risk management strategies does this represent?
Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:
Risk Acceptance: By deciding that transactions below $50 do not require authorization, management is consciously accepting the low-level risk associated with this decision to streamline processes and reduce administrative burdens.
Other Options:
Option A: Risk avoidance would involve eliminating the activity altogether, which is not the case here.
Option C: Risk reduction would involve implementing controls to mitigate the risk, not eliminating authorization requirements.
Thus, the correct answer is B. Accept.
A senior police officer was in charge of the cash fund used for undercover operations. In this situation, which of the following would likely be considered a red flag?
Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:
Living Beyond Means: This is a classic red flag for potential fraud. It suggests that the officer may be using unauthorized funds to support an extravagant lifestyle, particularly when they have access to a cash fund with limited oversight.
Other Options:
Option A: Lack of professional qualifications may affect competence but is not directly linked to fraudulent behavior.
Option C: Silence about operations may reflect confidentiality requirements rather than misconduct.
Thus, the correct answer is B. The officer appears to be living beyond his means.
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