There are two terminals, T1 and T2, both registered to the same GK. When T1 calls T2 by number, what is wrong with the following statement? () Multiple choice
The answer is clearly B. T1 needs to know the call signaling channel address of T2 in order to establish the direct connection. Come on, this is basic VoIP call setup stuff.
A? Are you kidding me? The GK call signaling channel address has nothing to do with this scenario. This is a direct call between the terminals, not a call routed through the GK.
Haha, I'm pretty sure the answer is not C. Why would T2 send an ARQ message to the GK? That's just silly, the GK is not involved in the direct call between the terminals.
The correct answer is B. The ACF message received by T1 contains the call signaling channel transmission address of T2, not the GK. This is because the call is being made directly between the terminals, not through the GK.
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