Which of the following is the primary risk of using asset allocation models without periodic rebalancing?
Step by Step Explanation:
Rebalancing: Ensures that a portfolio remains aligned with its target allocation. Without rebalancing, outperforming assets can become overweighted, increasing exposure to specific risks.
Incorrect Options:
Inflation: Impacts purchasing power but isn't tied to rebalancing.
Marketability: Refers to liquidity and isn't linked to allocation models.
Interest Rate Risk: Relates to fixed-income investments and isn't directly addressed by allocation models.
SEC Investor Bulletin on Asset Allocation: SEC Asset Allocation.
A customer purchased 100 shares of Company XYZ common stock five years ago for $20.00 per share. Over the life of her investment, the customer received cash dividends of $2.00 per share, on which she paid total income taxes of $0.50 per share. She recently sold the stock for $30.00 per share. What is the customer's cost basis in each share of XYZ stock?
The cost basis of a stock represents the purchase price and does not include dividends received. Taxes paid on dividends also do not affect the cost basis.
Original purchase price per share = $20.00.
Dividends and taxes on dividends do not adjust the stock's cost basis.
A is correct because the cost basis remains $20.00.
B, C, and D incorrectly assume that dividends or taxes change the cost basis.
When are registered persons required to fulfill their Continuing Education (CE) Regulatory Element requirement?
FINRA's Continuing Education (CE) requirements include the Regulatory Element, which must be completed:
Within 120 days of the second anniversary of a registered representative's initial registration.
Every three years thereafter (changed to every two years as of 2023).
C is correct because registered persons must complete the CE Regulatory Element after their initial requirement and then every two years.
A and B are incorrect because CE is not required annually or semiannually.
D is incorrect because CE is not tied to customer complaints.
Which of the following responses best describes how member firms are required to retain electronic correspondence and internal communications of associated persons?
FINRA Rule 4511 requires member firms to retain records, including electronic communications, in a non-rewriteable, non-erasable format (often referred to as WORM: Write Once, Read Many). This ensures that records cannot be altered or deleted once stored.
D is correct because firms must store records in a tamper-proof format.
A, B, and C are incorrect because these formats do not guarantee compliance with the tamper-proof requirements set forth by FINRA and the SEC.
Which of the following account registration types is subject to probate upon the death of the account owner?
Accounts held individually are subject to probate, which is the legal process of administering the decedent's estate. Probate determines the distribution of assets according to the deceased's will or state intestacy laws.
A is correct because individual accounts require probate to transfer assets.
B is incorrect because irrevocable trusts bypass probate.
C is incorrect because TOD accounts allow direct transfer of assets to named beneficiaries without probate.
D is incorrect because JTWROS accounts transfer ownership to the surviving account holder automatically.
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